Abnormal Psychology 2nd Edition Nolen-Hoeksema Test Bank
1. What theory is Albert Ellis associated with?
A. Rational-behavioural theory
B. Rational-emotive theory
C. Rational-cognitive theory
D. Rational-developmental theory
2. Albert Ellis’ approach to abnormal behaviour is based on which of the following perspectives?
3. Which of the following best defines a theory?
A. A theory is a set of ideas that tentatively bridges the gap between normal and abnormal behaviours
B. A theory is a set of ideas that relates only to observed behaviours
C. A theory is a set of ideas that explains the causality of abnormality
A theory is a set of ideas that provides a framework for asking questions, gathering and interpreting
information about a phenomenon
4. Which of the following best describes the nature-nurture question of abnormality?
A. The nature-nurture question relies heavily on biological perspectives to address abnormal behaviours
B. The nature-nurture question views abnormal behaviours merely from a sociological perspective
C. The nature-nurture question integrates a biological, psychological and social approach to abnormal
D. The nature-nurture question rejects the idea that abnormality has multiple causes
5. Maria and her parents recently moved to a new province because her mother was transferred to a new
position in her company. She has had difficulty adjusting to her new school and has been suffering from
loss of appetite, irritability and lack of interest in her usual activities. Assuming that Maria’s behaviour
meets the criteria for abnormal behaviour, which of the following would most likely be the best approach
to explaining Maria’s behaviour?
A. Psychological approach
B. Nature-nurture question
C. Social approach
D. Biological approach
6. A psychologist who applies a social approach would likely attribute abnormal behaviour to which of the
C. Interpersonal relationships
D. Unconscious desires
7. The integration of biological, psychological and social approaches to abnormality is referred to as the
A. Vulnerability-stress model
B. Stress and diathesis model
C. Biological-stress model
D. Stress-anxiety model
8. Which of the following statements is most true of the vulnerability-stress model?
A. The vulnerability-stress model is based on a genetic mutation that results in abnormal behaviours
B. The vulnerability-stress model is based on psychological factors that exacerbate biological symptoms
C. The vulnerability-stress model suggests that the vulnerability can be either biological or psychological
D. The vulnerability stress model suggests that environmental stressors must always be biological
9. Which of the following best explains the interaction between vulnerability and stress to cause a disorder?
A.The vulnerability can be biological, psychological, or social and when coupled with the stress causes
the disorder to manifest
An individual experiences a minimal amount of psychological and social stress that creates an
atmosphere for the emergence of a disorder
C. Biological factors and psychological factors interact and create social stressors that influence the
Psychological and social vulnerability are loosely associated with the disorder, but biological factors
are the main contributors to the disorder
10. Which of the following statements best captures the feedback loops that maintain abnormal behaviour?
A. Biological and social factors impact each other but have no influence on psychological factors
B. Psychosocial factors have a more profound effect on mental disorders than biological factors
C. Biological changes impact psychological and social factors which in turn may affect biological factors
D. Biological and psychological changes impact each other but have no influence on social factors
11. Tonya is worried about her upcoming nursing board exams. She has been suffering from nausea and a
queasy stomach. Her anxiety has caused her to be irritable and she has been having trouble sleeping.
Tonya has been less patient with family, which causes her more anxiety and increases her gastrointestinal
problems. In this situation which of the following best explains Tonya’s behaviour?
A. Feedback loop
B. Psychological factors
C. Biological factors
D. Social factors
12. Which of the following biological theories best explains the changes in Phineas Gage’s behaviour?
A. Genetic abnormality
B. Structural damage to the brain
C. Biochemical imbalance
D. Genetic predisposition
13. Which of the following is not a biological approach to abnormality?
A. Structural damage to the brain
B. Genetic abnormalities
C. Biochemical imbalance
D. Biological defense mechanisms
14. Which term refers to damage to the brain?
15. Phineas Gage’s head injury occurred in which part of the brain?
B. Cerebral cortex
D. Limbic system
16. What is the cerebral cortex responsible for?
A. Regulating sexual drives
B. Advanced thinking processes
C. Relaying messages to the brain
D. Impulse control
17. Dysfunction in which part of the brain would be associated with abnormal eating, drinking and sexual
A. Right frontal lobe
18. Cindy’s mood has become increasingly unstable since her traffic accident. She often experiences bouts
of aggression and fits of rage without provocation. Other times she can be overly passive and fails to
recognize direct threats. What part of the brain did Cindy most likely damage?
A. Temporal lobe
B. Limbic system
19. Which of the following statements is most true of neuroimaging techniques?
A.They have a high success rate of detecting structural abnormalities in the brains of those who suffer
from psychological disorders
They have approximately a 50% success rate for detecting structural abnormalities in the brain of those
who suffer from psychological disorders
C. They have been successful in determining causality of the most severe psychological disorders
D. They often detect no structural abnormalities in the brains of those who suffer from psychological
20. What term refers to biochemicals that carry impulses from one neuron to another?
C. Electrical transmissions
D. Synaptic responses
21. Sally usually enjoys listening to music and playing her guitar. Lately, though, she finds these activities
unrewarding, and as a result she feels sad and unmotivated. Which neurotransmitter is likely depleted in
22. What does the term ‘degradation’ refer to?
A. The releasing of neurons into the synaptic gap for uptake by the receiving neuron
B. The reabsorption of the neurotransmitter into the initial neuron
C. The attaching of neurotransmitter to the receptor of the receiving neuron
D. The receiving neuron releasing an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter into other chemicals
23. Which one of the following neurotransmitters plays an important role in regulating emotion and
24. Which of the following is an important role of dopamine?
A. The functioning of intellectual systems
B. The functioning of muscle systems
C. The regulation of pain and mood
D. The regulation of aggression
25. Which of the following substances slow the reuptake process of norepinephrine?
A. Cocaine and heroin
B. Heroin and marijuana
C. Marijuana and amphetamines
D. Amphetamines and cocaine
26. In which of the following emotional responses does gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) play a role?
27. Albert Ellis’ anxiety would most likely be attributed to a dysfunction in which of the following systems?
A. The dopamine system
B. The serotonin system
C. The GABA system
D. The endorphin system
28. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Neurotransmitters are less likely to be considered contributors to mental disorders than psychological
B. The reuptake and degradation processes influence the levels of neurotransmitters
C. Substances such as heroin, cocaine, and amphetamines have little effect on neurotransmitter levels
D. Scientists have identified more than 1000 different neurotransmitters
29. Which biochemical affects an individual’s level of energy, reaction to stress, and mood?
30. The three approaches to Gene Studies include:
A. Adoption studies, twin studies, and family studies
B. Neurotransmitter system, endocrine system, and HPA axis
C. Behaviour genetics, polygenic processes, and chromosomal analyses
D. Linkage analysis, association studies, and epigenetics
31. The pituitary gland is most responsible for ______________.
A. Regulating mood and emotions
B. Regulating brain function and relaying messages
C. Regulating energy levels and managing aggression
D. Regulating the secretion of hormones by other endocrine glands
32. When the corticotrophin-release factor (CRF) travels from the hypothalamus to the pituitary, the pituitary
releases the body’s adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). The bloodstream carries ACTH to other
glands and organs. This example illustrates the complex relationship between _______________.
A. The pituitary gland and hormones
B. The hormones and endocrine system
C. The endocrine system and hypothalamus
D. The hypothalamus and pituitary gland
33. A dysregulated hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis has been linked to which of the following
A. Anxiety and depression
B. Delusions and hallucinations
C. Anger and aggression
D. Panic and worry
34. Structures in the brain and the endocrine system frequently work together to create psychopathology as
illustrated in the
B. HPA axis
C. Adrenal gland
35. Which of the following is not true concerning behaviour genetics?
A. Behaviour genetics studies the genetics of personality and abnormal behaviour
B. Research in behaviour genetics focuses primarily on twin studies
C. Research in behaviour genetics suggests that most disorders result from polygenic processes
D. Behaviour geneticists investigate the inheritability of behaviours and behavioural tendencies
36. How many chromosomes does a fertilized embryo have at conception?
37. Ralph’s older brother was recently diagnosed with Schizophrenia. Ralph, who is 16, is convinced that he,
too, will develop Schizophrenia when he gets a little older because he’s heard that Schizophrenia is due
to “bad genes”. What are Ralph’s actual chances for developing Schizophrenia?
A. Around 50%
B. Around 90%
C. Around 10%
D. Around 25%
38. Sandy was born with the chromosome 21 present in triplicate. Sandy was most likely born with which
A. Severe mental retardation
B. Down syndrome
C. Tay Sachs Disease
D. Fragile X syndrome
39. What does the term “polygenic process” refer to?
A. Multiple genes that culminate to create a disorder
B. The interaction between hormones and adrenal function
C. A coded set of instructions for cells to perform certain functions
D. A genetic predisposition to a disorder
40. In order to conduct family history studies, it is important that researchers do which of the following?
A.Gather information from primary care physicians on families who suffer from debilitating
B. Identify any external stressors that create disorders in families
C. Use a biopsychosocial methodology
D. Clearly identify the probands and control groups, and then trace family trees
41. Dell is interested in conducting a family history study on compulsive behaviours. His sample will consist
of first-degree relatives. Therefore, which of the following families will make up Dell’s sample?
A. Families with adopted children
B. Families with biological children
C. Families with only monozygotic twins
D. Families with stepchildren
42. Monozygotic twins share what percentage of their genes?
A. 25 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 100 percent
43. Terry and Perry are twins. Most people have no difficulty telling them apart. Terry has blonde hair and
blue eyes and Perry has dark hair and brown eyes. What type of twins are Terry and Perry?
A. Dizygotic twins
B. Twins created by a polygenic process
C. Monozygotic twins
D. Identical twins
44. What term refers to the probability that both twins will have a disorder if one twin has the disorder?
A. Variable ratio
B. Concordance rate
C. Time-space interval
D. Genetic ration
45. Michael and Michelle are adolescents who share the same birthday. Michael received a diagnosis
of bipolar disorder. On the other hand, Michelle shows no signs of mood disturbance. Which of the
following statements is most likely true?
A.Michael and Michelle are most likely monozygotic twins but Michael is genetically predisposed to
develop a mood disorder
Michael and Michelle are most likely dizygotic twins but Michael developed the disorder because he
modeled behaviours of other family members
Michael and Michelle are most likely dizygotic twins but Michelle did not develop the disorder because
the concordance rate was extremely low
Michael and Michelle are most likely monozygotic twins but Michelle did not develop the disorder
because she has a higher tolerance for stress
46. Dr. Bennett is least likely to use which of the following studies to learn about the influence of genetics on
A. Adoption studies
B. Twin studies
C. Extended family studies
D. Family history studies
47. Macy was adopted at birth, but later found that she had a twin sister. When reunited, Macy and her sister
were shockingly surprised that they shared similar tastes in clothing, music and food. Both become
uncomfortable and feel awkward in social situations. Based on the results of the twin studies conducted at
the University of British Columbia and the University of Minnesota, genetics most likely influenced all of
the following except:
A. Their everyday life experiences
B. Anxiety of social situations
C. Personality traits
D. Behavioural patterns
48. For which of the following studies would separating the impacts of genetics and shared environment be
A. Family history studies and adoption studies
B. Adoption studies and non-traditional family studies
C. Twin studies and family history studies
D. Extended family studies and adoption studies
49. Which of the following is not considered a flaw of biological theories?
A. They often seem reductionistic
B. Social and environmental factors are often ignored
C.No explanations are available for why those who are biologically at risk for a disorder do not always
develop the disorder
D. Progress has advanced too quickly and the development of treatments is lagging
50. According to the Psychodynamic perspective, abnormal behaviour is influenced by which of the
A. Unconscious processes
B. External locus of control
C. Ego centric process
D. Collective experience
51. Who developed the psychoanalytic approach to personality and treatment of psychopathology?
52. Frank and Bill are identical twins. At age 3, their genetic assays are identical. However, at age 50 there
are major changes between the assays. What is the approach that examines differences in how genes are
A. Twin studies
C. Association studies
D. Linkage analysis
53. According to Freud, as a result of repression, what happens to emotion?
A. It is dissolved
B. It is traumatized
C. It is dammed-up
D. It is clarified
54. How did Freud define repression?
A. Inconsistent memories
B. Motivated forgetting
C. False memories
D. Personal forgetfulness
55. According to Freudian theory, which of the following is one of the two basic drives that motivates human
56. According to Freudian theory, what three systems of the human psyche regulate the libido?
A. Personal unconscious, collective unconscious and archetypes
B. Id, ego and superego
C. Ego, unconscious and subconscious
D. Aggressive drive, id and the superego
57. The id operates by which of the following principles?
A. The reality principle
B. The morality principle
C. The conscience principle
D. The pleasure principle
58. Sarah is constantly being distracted by her desire to become a model. Sarah spends most of her leisure
time daydreaming of becoming a star. Her teacher has threatened to call her parents if she continues this
behaviour. According to Freudian theory, Sarah is engaging in which of the following?
A. Primary process thinking
B. Ego identity crisis
C. Id dominated behaviours
D. Libidinal drive
59. Which of the following structures is aware of objects in the environment and operates in the reality
D. Ego centrism
60. Which of the following is the ego’s primary mode of operation?
A. Primary process thinking
B. Secondary process thinking
C. Tertiary process thinking
D. Secondary tertiary process thinking
61. Frank attends an evening class at the local community college. He begins to have stomach pain because
of hunger. He wants to leave class early and get dinner, but realizes that leaving would disrupt the class
instruction. Frank decides to wait and get a snack during the break. In this example, Frank most likely is
applying which of the following styles of thinking?
A. Rational deliberation
B. Wish fulfillment
62. What is the superego responsible for?
A. Regulating emotional responses
B. Monitoring poor impulse controls
C. Storing rules and regulations of moral behaviours
D. Observing objects in the environment
63. Which of the following components are part of the superego?
A. Anima and animus
B. Ego and personal unconscious
C. Inferiority and superiority
D. Conscience and ego ideal
64. Where do most of the interactions between the id, ego and superego occur?
A. Neurotic system
65. Which structure has the responsibility of protecting the conscious from unconscious material that may be
66. According to Freudian theory, what role do defense mechanisms play?
A. They are used by the superego as reward for moral conduct
B. They disguise or transform unconscious wishes
C. They create psychological disorders
D. They protect the preconscious
67. Terrence’s father abandoned his mother and him when he was 6 years-old. When he is asked about his
father, he says that his father died. Although his father has tried to contact him, Terrence insists that his
father is dead. Which of the following Freudian processes would best explain Terrence’s behaviour?
A. Id dominated behaviour
B. Neurotic paradox
C. Defense mechanism
D. Penis envy
68. What is the correct sequential order for Freud’s psychosexual stages?
A. Oral, anal, latency, genital, phallic
B. Anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital
C. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
D. Anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency
69. Sarah and her mother, Stephanie, are constantly arguing because Sarah continues to challenge her
mother’s authority. Sarah is consistently bickering with her siblings. Her teacher has requested a
conference to discuss Sarah’s inability to control her anger and monitor her words. According to Freudian
theory, Sarah probably had difficulty in which psychosexual stage of development?
70. Lena is extremely opinionated and overcontrolling. She often demands her way and refuses to offer help
to anyone in need. According to Freudian theory, Lena probably became fixated in which psychosexual
stage of development?
71. Boys who experience extreme fear of castration anxiety resolve the conflict by identifying with their
fathers and putting aside their desires for their mothers. According to Freudian theory, this conflict
develops during the ___________ stage and the process is called the ___________.
A. Anal/Oedipus complex
B. Phallic/Electra complex
C. Anal/Electra complex
D. Phallic/Oedipus complex
72. Jeremy and Stacy are siblings who attend the same elementary school. They rarely speak to each other
during free time. Jeremy is usually hanging out with his male friends while Stacy and her female friends
stick together. At home, they interact only minimally. Each believes that his/her gender “rules”. Jeremy
and Stacy are most likely in which stage of psychosexual development?
73. Lancet has become interested in his chemistry class. He has always been shy and elicits the help of his
older sister for dating advice. Lancet is most likely in which stage of psychosexual development?
74. Critics of Freudian theory would be most likely to argue which of the following?
A. Freud’s theory fails to account for biological factors in development
B. Freud’s theory neglects the role of social and environmental forces
C. Freud’s theory overemphasizes the concept of self
D. Freud’s theory focuses too much attention on sexuality in social relationships
75. An advocate of object relations theory would be most likely to believe which of the following statements?
A.Interpersonal relationships during early childhood influence an individual’s self-concept and
B. Self-awareness is impacted by the psychosexual urges present during each stage of development
C. Thoughts, behaviours, and emotions are connected to one’s unconscious state of mind
D.Environmental stressors coupled with poor parental relationships create mental disorders for
76. Higher rates of depression and post-traumatic stress disorder among Aboriginal people in Canada may be
at least partially attributed to
A. Physical isolation
B. Societal reorganization
C. Polygenic processes
D. Cultural isolation
77. Ever since Rachel moved to a new neighbourhood, she has been concerned that her children have been
misbehaving and disobeying her, and staying out past their curfew. Consistent with social structural
theories, Rachel should be vigilant for
A. A lack of cohesion in her neighbourhood
B. Open conflict among neighbours
C. Subcultures, such as gangs
78. The symptoms of ________ appear to be vary between Asian and Canadian cultures.
B. Bipolar disorder
D. Anorexia Nervosa
79. Suzy is an active toddler who enjoys playing with blocks independently. Suddenly, a pile of blocks
tips over and hits Suzy in the nose. Suzy sobs uncontrollably and seeks out her mother. This behaviour
suggests that Suzy has developed a
A. Secure attachment
B. Insecure attachment
C. Disorganized attachment
80. According to Family Systems Theories, the family system works towards
81. Which of the following theorists criticized Freud’s theory of female development?
A. Karen Horney
B. Anna Freud
C. Eleanor Rosch
D. Melanie Klein
82. Chad is an active patron of the arts and finds great fulfillment in admiring a beautiful painting or statue.
These activities suggest that Chad has met which of following needs:
C. All of the above.
D. None of the above
83. Which of the following is true of behavioural theorists’?
A. They accept the idea that unconscious conflicts drive human behaviour
B. They include biological factors as contributing to abnormal behaviours
C. They suggest that maladaptive thinking patterns are the primary motivator for abnormal behaviours
D. They focus on the influences of reinforcement and punishment in producing behaviour
84. Which of the following are the core principles of behavioural theories?
A. Classical reinforcement and operant conditioning
B. Operant observation and vicarious reinforcement
C. Classical conditioning and operant conditioning
D. Operant conditioning and latent learning
85. Who was the Russian physiologist whose discovery of conditioned responses made a tremendous impact
A. B. F. Skinner
B. John Watson
C. Edward Thorndike
D. Ivan Pavlov
86. In Pavlov’s experiment, which of the following was true of the conditioned stimulus?
A. It was the event that elicited the unlearned response
B. It was the previously neutral stimulus
C. It was a reinforcement that elicited the learned response
D. It was the same as the unconditioned stimulus
87. Alexis was a sick child who made frequent visits to the hospital. One day her mother and Alexis drove
by the hospital and Alexis began to cry. She repeatedly said, “Mommy, I don’t want to see the doctor.” In
this example, which of the following is the conditioned stimulus?
A. Her mother
B. The shot
C. The car
D. The hospital
88. How does classical conditioning explain the physiological response heroin addicts have when they see a
A. The physiological response to the syringe becomes the conditioned stimulus
B. The physiological response to the syringe is the unconditioned stimulus
C. The physiological response to the syringe remains as the neutral stimulus
D. The physiological response to the syringe is the unconditioned and conditioned stimulus
89. A fire ant stung Leah while she was playing in the yard. She becomes panicky each time she goes out to
play. In this example, which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus?
A. The sting
B. Playing outside
C. Seeing the ant
D. Feeling panicky
90. A fire ant stung Leah while she was playing in the yard. She becomes panicky each time she goes out to
play. In this example, which of the following is the conditioned stimulus?
A. The sting
B. Playing outside
C. Seeing the ant
D. Feeling panicky
91. Rachael broke her wrist jumping a hurdle at track practice. She experiences no fear when participating in
other sports. Yet, when she sees a hurdle, she becomes afraid. In this example the unconditioned response
is ___________ and the conditioned response is _____________.
A. Fear of falling; jumping the hurdle
B. Jumping the hurdle; jumping the hurdle
C. Jumping the hurdle; fear of falling
D. Fear of falling; fear of falling
92. Which of the following is claimed by the Law of Effect?
A. The strength of the reward has no bearing on behaviours
B. Punishment has no impact on undesired behaviours
C. Behaviours followed by a reward are strengthened
D. Punishment is more effective than rewards
93. Which form of conditioning refers to shaping behaviours by providing rewards for desired responses and
punishments for undesired responses?
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Respondent conditioning
D. Avoidant conditioning
94. Who is most strongly associated with operant conditioning?
A. Edward Thorndike
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. John Watson
D. B.F. Skinner
95. Which of the following is not an example of an operantly-learned behaviour?
A. An adolescent washing the car hoping to get a curfew extension
B. A man jumping back at the sight of a snake
C. A prison inmate receiving tokens for good behaviour
D. An animal staying still to avoid an electric shock
96. Tracy got her first pair of glasses. She told her mother that she did not want to wear them to school
because the kids would laugh at her. A week later, Tracy’s mother found Tracy’s glasses stuffed in her
pillowcase. Her mother decided to give Tracy $2.00 every two hours for wearing her glasses. Which type
of schedule applies to Tracy’s behaviour?
A. Continuous reinforcement schedule
B. Partial reinforcement schedule
C. Continuous punishment schedule
D. Partial punishment schedule
97. What process refers to the elimination of a learned behaviour?
98. Behaviours reinforced on which of the following schedules are the most difficult to extinguish?
A. Nonstop reinforcement
B. Partial reinforcement
C. Continuous reinforcement
D. Positive reinforcement
99. Jessica was in a car accident crossing an icy bridge. She now maps out her routes to avoid traveling over
bridges. This avoidance helps to reduce her anxiety. What kind of response has Jessica developed?
A. An unconditioned response
B. A conditioned avoidance response
C. A conditioned response
D. An unconditioned avoidance response
100.According to social learning theory, what is meant by the term “modelling”?
A. People learn by viewing the behaviour of others
B. Learning is the direct result of rewards and punishment
C. People observe the punishment and rewards of others and then model the behaviours
D. Learning occurs when two stimuli are paired together
101.Joe’s favorite food is spaghetti. His mom always makes it for him on Friday night, but his mom does not
like the way he slurps the spaghetti into his mouth. One Friday night, she attempted to change Joe’s eating
pattern. At dinner, she picked up her spoon and fork and began to roll the spaghetti. David, Joe’s brother,
used his spoon as well. Susan, Joe’s sister, also used her spoon to roll her spaghetti. At first, Joe slurped
spaghetti into his mouth, but after a few minutes, he began to use his fork and spoon. In this example, Joe
is doing which of the following?
A. Shaping behaviours
B. Modeling behaviours
C. Observing behaviours
D. Acquiring behaviours
102.Jerry sees Mike getting a sticker for sitting quietly in his seat. Jerry decides to stop fidgeting and begins
to sit still in hopes of getting as sticker for his sticker collection. Which learning process is taking place?
A. Classical conditioning
B. Observational learning
C. Conditioned learning
D. Social learning
103.Which of the following is not a limitation of behavioural theories?
Certain abnormal behaviours can be replicated in the laboratory but it is questionable whether the
behaviours occur in the real world
B. The development of normal and abnormal behaviours has been scientifically tested by behavioural
C.The complexity of human behaviours and the environmental experiences cannot be captured in
D. Behavioural theories do not recognize free will
104.Which movement followed the development of behavioural theories?
D. Social learning
105.The idea that humans construct meaning out of their experiences and act in accordance with their
interpretations of the world is based on which of the following theories?
106.Which of the following is the focus of cognitive theories?
A. Measurable behaviours
B. Thoughts and beliefs
C. Unconscious conflicts
107.Which of the following is not a type of cognition?
A. Causal attribution
B. Dysfunctional assumptions
C. Control theory
D. Dysfunctional behaviours
108.Martha was distraught when she discovered her husband had been involved with another woman and
the relationship had produced a child. She constantly asked herself: why the extra-marital relationship
happened, why he was unhappy with her, why didn’t he tell her about the child and why hadn’t her
husband told her that he was unhappy with their relationship? Which type of cognition is Martha most
A. Control theory
B. Causal attribution
C. Global assumption
D. Adaptive thinking
109.When he was using drugs, Reggie had several encounters with the law. His police record has kept him
from getting several apartments because of the background check. Reggie interprets his search for an
apartment as hopeless. He often says, “I might as well give up, no one is going to rent me an apartment
anyway. How can I get ahead if no one will give me a chance?” Reggie is most likely experiencing which
type of cognition?
B. Learned helplessness
D. Causal attribution
110.Self-efficacy is a person’s belief in his/her abilities to accomplish desired outcomes. Who conceived the
idea of self-efficacy?
A. Martin Seligman
B. Albert Ellis
C. John Watson
D. Albert Bandura
111.People who tend to hold dysfunctional assumptions often react to situations with all of the following,
A. Irrational thoughts
B. Adaptive behaviours
C. Negative emotions
D. Maladaptive behaviours
112.Which of the following is the greatest limitation of the cognitive theories?
A. Cognitive theories do not recognize the important role of social factors.
B. Cognitive theories do not place enough emphasis on the role of biological factors.
C. Cognitive theories cannot explain unwanted emotions, thoughts and behaviours
D. Cognitive theories cannot prove that maladaptive cognitions precede and cause disorders
113.Which of the following theories is based on the assumption that humans have an innate capacity for
goodness and for living a full life?
A. Humanistic and existential
B. Existential and psychodynamic
C. Psychodynamic and humanistic
D. Cognitive and behavioural
114.Which of the following theories was developed in reaction to the pessimistic and deterministic view of
human behaviour by the psychodynamic perspective, and traditional behavioural view that behaviours are
a product of the environment?
115.Which of the following is true concerning humanistic and existential theories?
A. Existential theories take a more negative approach to the human experience than the humanistic
B.Critics of humanistic and existential theories argue that the theories are vague and impossible to test
C. Humanistic and existential theories focus on existential anxiety as an explanation of abnormality
D. Free will is not viewed as an important part of human nature in the humanistic and existential theories
116.Which of the following is not considered a social perspective of abnormal behaviour?
A. Interpersonal theories
B. Family systems theories
C. Object relation theories
D. Social structural theories
117.Who posited that individuals proceed through resolving psychosocial crises attempting to understand
their world, their relationships, and themselves?
A. Erik Erikson
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Harry Sullivan
D. Karen Horney
118.Randolph was constantly criticized by his father and grew up believing that he could not do anything
right. According to Sullivan’s theory, which of the following most likely describes Randolph’s selfconcept?
119.Lucy is concerned because her family pays little or no attention to each other. They seem to constantly go
their own way and have little interest in having a meal together. According to the family systems theory,
what term best describes Lucy’s family?
A. Inflexible family
B. Distant family
C. Disengaged family
D. Dysfunctional family
120.Biological, psychological, and social approaches are being integrated to explain abnormal